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United Airlines finds loose bolts during inspections of Boeing 737 Max 9
Bolts in need of “additional tightening” have been found during inspections of Boeing 737 Max 9s, United Airlines has said.
Inspections began after a section of the fuselage fell from an Alaska Airlines 737 Max 9 on Friday.
United Airlines said “installation issues” relating to door plugs would be “remedied” before the aircraft type would return to service. Some 171 planes of the same type remain grounded by the US regulator.
In its statement, United said: “Since we began preliminary inspections on Saturday, we have found instances that appear to relate to installation issues in the door plug – for example, bolts that needed additional tightening.”
The door plug is a piece of fuselage with a window that can be used as an emergency exit in certain configurations. It was this part of the Alaska Airlines plane which dramatically fell off mid-flight over the US state of Oregon, eventually landing in a teacher’s back garden.
The plane made an emergency landing and none of the passengers were injured.
The vast majority of Boeing 737 Max 9s used in the US are operated by United Airlines and Alaska, while Turkish Airlines, Panama’s Copa Airlines and Aeromexico have also grounded jets of the same model for inspections.
United said it had cancelled 200 flights as of Monday and expected significant cancellations on Tuesday. “We have been able to operate some planned flights by switching to other aircraft types, avoiding about 30 cancellations each on Monday and Tuesday,” United added.
Meanwhile on Monday, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), which regulates air travel in the US, said it had provided a checklist for operators to adhere to during inspections.
In a statement, the FAA said all 737 Max 9 aircraft would remain grounded until operators “complete enhanced inspections which include both left and right cabin door exit plugs, door components, and fasteners”. “Operators must also complete corrective action requirements based on findings from the inspections prior to bringing any aircraft back into service,” the statement added.
Flight 1282 reached 16,000ft (4.8km) when it began its emergency descent on Friday evening, according to flight tracking data. Images shared online – and later by investigators – showed a wide hole in the side of the craft, with oxygen masks dangling from the ceiling.
Passengers were quoted by The Oregonian newspaper as saying that a young boy seated near the affected area had his shirt ripped off by the force of the decompression.
The US National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), which is leading an investigation into the incident, said pilots had reported pressurisation warning lights on three previous flights made by the specific Alaska Airlines Max 9 involved in the incident.
The jet had been prevented from making long-haul flights over water so that the plane “could return very quickly to an airport” in the event the warnings happened again, NTSB chief Jennifer Homendy said.
It is not clear if there is a link between the issues that led to those warnings, and the issue that caused the blowout on 5 January.
Alaska Airlines said in its most recent statement: “While we await the airworthiness directive (AD) inspection criteria from the FAA and Boeing, our maintenance teams are prepared and ready to perform the required inspections of the mid exit door plugs on our 737-9 Max fleet.
“The 737-9 Max grounding has significantly impacted our operation. We have cancelled 170 Sunday flights and 60 cancellations for Monday, with more expected.”
Boeing said in a statement: “Safety is our top priority and we deeply regret the impact this event has had on our customers and their passengers.”
The company’s 737 Max has been described as “the most scrutinised transport aircraft in history” after a series of safety issues.
In late 2018 and early 2019, two of its aircraft were lost in near identical incidents, off the coast of Indonesia and outside the Ethiopian capital Addis Ababa. A total of 346 people were killed. Both crashes were caused by flawed flight control software, which ultimately forced the planes into catastrophic dives, despite the best efforts of the pilots.
(BBC)
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Eshan Malinga earns maiden call-up for New Zealand ODIs; Lahiru Kumara recalled
Malinga, who had made his domestic debut in 2022, has picked up 20 wickets in 12 List A games at an average of 25.15. He had first come on the radar in 2019 after winning a nationwide fast-bowling contest, where he clocked a winning speed of 141kph.
Malinga continues to rise in 2024, adding more consistency and control to his fairly searing pace. It earned him an LPL contract with Jaffna Kings, and while he played just a solitary game in the season, he was also signed by Sunrisers Hyderabad for IPL 2025. Malinga has also been a regular feature in the Sri Lanka A side across formats.
Malinga’s inclusion coincides with the waning star of Madushanka, who has struggled since returning from injury earlier in the year. He had finished the 2023 ODI World Cup as the third highest wicket taker, but has managed just 14 wickets in 11 ODIs in 2024.
The batting unit is relatively settled, with captain Charith Asalanka leading a strong contingent that also includes Pathum Nissanka, Kusal Mendis and Kamindu Mendis. While Nissanka has nailed down one opening spot, the other will go to one of Avishka Fernando or Nishan Madushka.
Meanwhile, Samarawickrama’s exclusion comes on the back of a lean stretch of form across formats, while his replacement Nuwanidu offers a more aggressive option. Janith Liyanage, who is also a handy seam-bowling option, is currently the first-choice option for that lower middle-order berth, while Chamindu Wickramasinghe also offers another all-round seam-bowling option.
Asitha Fernando heads the pace unit, which also includes Kumara, Malinga and Mohamed Shiraz. Dunith Wellalage, Wanindu Hasaranga, Maheesh Theekshana and Jeffrey Vandersay make up the spin-bowling department.
Sri Lanka’s tour of New Zealand begins with the three-match T20I series from December 28. The tour then moves on to the ODIs, with the first one to be held on January 5 in Wellington. That will be followed by matches in Hamilton and Auckland on January 8 and 11, respectively.
Sri Lanka squad for NZ ODIs
Charith Asalanka (capt), Pathum Nissanka, Avishka Fernando, Nishan Madushka, Kusal Mendis, Kamindu Mendis, Janith Liyanage, Nuwanidu Fernando, Dunith Wellalage, Wanindu Hasaranga, Maheesh Theekshana, Jeffrey Vandersay, Chamindu Wickramasinghe, Asitha Fernando, Mohamed Shiraz, Lahiru Kumara, Eshan Malinga
(Cricinfo)
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Christmas Carolat Presidential Secretariat until December 25
The annual special Christmas carol concert, collaboratively organized by the Presidential Secretariat, the Tri-Forces, and the Police, commenced on Sunday (22) under the patronage of the Minister of Labour and Deputy Minister of Economic Development, Prof. Anil Jayantha Fernando.
The event was inaugurated with the illumination of the Presidential Secretariat premises and surrounding areas. The Christmas carols on the opening day were performed by the choir and band of the Sri Lanka Army while the choir and band of the Sri Lanka Air Force performed on Monday (23).
This Christmas carol concert will continue daily until December 25, from 7:00 PM, at the Presidential Secretariat premises.
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Champions Trophy: India vs Pakistan on February 23 in UAE
India will play their Champions Trophy 2025 matches in the UAE. The decision, though widely expected, was finalised after Mohsin Naqvi, the PCB chairman, met with Sheikh Nahyan Al Mubarak in Pakistan. Sheikh Nahyan is a senior UAE minister and also the head of the Emirates Cricket Board.
“The PCB has picked the UAE as a neutral venue for the Champions Trophy,” PCB spokesperson Amir Mir said.
The Pakistan vs India league match will be played on February 23, a Sunday. Apart from Pakistan, the other two teams in India’s group are Bangladesh and New Zealand. India will face Bangladesh on February 20, and New Zealand on March 2. All these games are likely to be held in Dubai.
Pakistan, the defending champions, will kick off the tournament on February 19, against New Zealand in Karachi. Pakistan’s last league match, against Bangladesh, will be played in Rawalpindi on February 27.
The second group has Afghanistan, Australia, England and South Africa. The matches for both groups – apart from the India games – will be played across Lahore, Karachi and Rawalpindi.
The two semi-finals are scheduled for March 4 (without a reserve day) and March 5 (with a reserve day). The final on March 9 also has a reserve day. The first semi-final, if India make it to that stage, will be played in the UAE. If India don’t qualify, the game will be held in Pakistan. The final is slotted for Lahore, with the provision of holding it in the UAE if India make it that far.
The hybrid model was finalised after the parties involved agreed that, in return, Pakistan’s matches at ICC events hosted by India till 2027 will also be at a neutral venue. In all instances, knockout games such as the semi-final and the final will also be held at neutral venues.
The agreement begins with the Champions Trophy, and will apply to the 2025 women’s ODI World Cup in India, and the 2026 men’s T20 World Cup, which will be co-hosted by India and Sri Lanka. It will also apply to the 2028 Women’s T20 World Cup, the first tournament of the next events cycle that has now been awarded to Pakistan.
[Cricinfo]
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